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2 years ago in Philosophy of Religion , Philosophy of Science By Pooja
Is it defensible to claim that mathematics is the "universal language" for expressing all forms of knowledge, including empirical, formal, and even philosophical knowledge?
I'm in a debate about the unity of science. A colleague argues that mathematics, because of its abstractness and logical rigor, is the ultimate language for encoding knowledge from physics to, potentially, biology and social sciences. But does this "unreasonable effectiveness of mathematics" (Wigner) extend to qualitative, experiential, or normative knowledge? Can a mathematical formalism fully capture the content of a historical narrative, a moral judgment, or the qualia of pain? Where does this claim break down philosophically?
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By Govind Answered 1 month ago
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By Govind Answered 1 month ago
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